I have a particular situation. I would like to build a probit model to predict a given outcome $Y=\{0,1\}$ based on a set of predictors $X$.
A probit model has the form:
$$\text{Pr}(Y=1\,|\,X)=\Phi(X^T\beta)$$
where $\beta$ is a vector of coefficients estimated in the model. It can also be written as a latent variable model with an auxiliary variable
$$Y^{*}=X^T\beta+\epsilon$$
where $\epsilon\sim N(0,1)$. $Y$ is then viewed as an indicator for whether the latent variable is positive
$$Y=\begin{cases} 1,\quad\quad Y^{*}>0\\ 0,\quad\quad \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$$
Now, this is all fine. However, in my circumstances I have the assumption that there is some level of right truncation in the data I have. Thus, I was wondering if the following is a valid approach.
Let's say we fit our latent variable regression above using a simple linear model. From this, we would have estimates $\hat{\beta}$ and $\hat{\sigma}$ i.e. the coefficients and variance term of the fitted model.
Essentially, this gives us the mean and variance parameters of a Normal distribution. We can adjust these parameters for truncation as follows:
$$\begin{align} \mathbb{E}[X \,|\,X < b] &= \mu_{a} - \sigma_{a} \frac{\phi(\alpha)}{\Phi(\alpha)}\notag\\ \text{Var}(X \,|\, X < b) &= \sigma_{a}^2\left( 1 - \alpha\frac{\phi(\alpha)}{\Phi(\alpha)} - \left(\frac{\phi(\alpha)}{\Phi(\alpha)}\right)^2 \right) \end{align}$$
i.e. this gives us the true $(\mu_{a},\sigma_{a})$ of our Normal distribution after adjusting for truncation. The truncation level is $\alpha$. Note that in the case of right-truncation $\mu_{a}>X^{T}\beta$.
From here we can convert the probit as follows:
$$\begin{align}\text{Pr}(Y=1\,|\,X)&=\text{Pr}(Y^{*}>0)\notag\\ &=\text{Pr}(N(\mu_{a},\sigma_{a}^2)>0)\notag\\ &=\Phi\bigg(\frac{\mu_{a}}{\sigma_{a}}\bigg)\notag\\ &=\Phi\bigg(\frac{X^{T}\beta+c}{\sigma_{a}}\bigg)\notag \end{align}$$
for some $c>0$.
Is the above reasoning correct?
Alternatively, the likelihood function for a probit model is:
$$\begin{align} \ln\mathcal{L}(\beta)&=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\bigg(y_{i}\ln\Phi(x_{i}'\beta)+(1-y_{i})\ln\big(1-\Phi(x_{i}'\beta)\big)\bigg) \end{align}$$
Where the right-truncated version would be: $$\begin{align} \ln\mathcal{L}(\beta)&=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\bigg(y_{i}\ln F_{\text{TN}}(x_{i}'\beta;\alpha)+(1-y_{i})\ln\big(1-F_{\text{TN}}(x_{i}'\beta;\alpha)\big)\bigg) \end{align}$$
where $F_{\text{TN}}(x;\alpha)$ is the cumulative distribution function of the standard right-truncated Normal distribution. Maximizing (3) provides the estimates of the coefficients, $\hat{\beta}$.
Is this also correct?