No, it generally cannot, unless $Z_{t-2} = 0$ for all $t$: Define the lag operator $L$ such that $LX_t = X_{t-1}$, and similarly for $Z_t$. Then the equation you start with above can be rewritten as a lag polynomial of form
\begin{align}
(1-aL)X_t = (1-L)Z_t.
\end{align}
Using the third binomial formula, it is obvious that $(1+aL)(1-aL) = (1-a^2L^2)$, and as $(1-a^2L^2)X_t = X_t - a^2X_{t-2}$ by definition of the lag operator, one can now write
\begin{align}
(1+aL)(1-aL)X_t & = (1+aL)(1-L)Z_t\\
(1-a^2L^2)X_t & = (1 + (a-1)L - aL^2)Z_t \\
X_t - a^2X_{t-2} & = Z_t + (a-1)Z_{t-1} - aZ_{t-2}.
\end{align}
So in particular, $X_t - a^2X_{t-2} = Z_t + (1-a)Z_{t-1}$ if and only if $(a-1)Z_{t-1} - aZ_{t-2} = (1-a)Z_{t-1}$, which obviously only holds if $Z_{t-2} = 0$.