I have an Arima(1,1,1) model with predictors var1+var2+var3
, but am struggling with how to write the equation. The problem is that on all of the sources I see a variation of the following is given.
$$\left( 1 - \sum_{i=1}^p \phi_i L^i\right) (1-L)^d y_t = \delta + \left( 1 + \sum_{i=1}^q \theta_i L^i \right) \varepsilon_t . $$
Is there a way to write the equation solving for $y_t$? I find that the above equation is difficult to understand. Though I have the model saved in R the users of the forecast want the coefficients so they can plug them into excel and I don't have a good way to explain the formula solving for $y_t$
var1+var2+var3
"? Do you have an ARIMAX model, or a regression with ARIMA errors? Or do you have simply a straightforward ARIMA(1,1,1) model? This earlier thread may be helpful, although it does not specifically contain an ARIMA(1,1,1) model: Interpret ARIMA models in plain english $\endgroup$ – Stephan Kolassa Dec 13 '17 at 17:05ar1=-.1,ar2=-.2,ar3=.01,ar4=.02,ar5=.03, var1=.5,var2=.3,var3=.6
. How do I write that as an equation? $\endgroup$ – Alex Dec 13 '17 at 17:45var1+var2+var3
"? $\endgroup$ – Stephan Kolassa Dec 13 '17 at 18:05var1+var2+var3
would be coded asArima(log(train[,"sales"]), xreg=cbind(var1,var2,var3),order = c(5,1,0))
. Hyndman calls this "Dynamic Regression". $\endgroup$ – Alex Dec 13 '17 at 19:57