I understand that overdispersion indicates extra, unexplained variation in the response than would be expected based on the statistical model of choice. And that the residual deviance is a measure of goodness of fit.

But I don't have an intuition behind why the ratio of residual deviance to residual degrees of freedom gives a measure of overdispersion.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.