For independent samples from two normal populations, $X_1,\dotsc,X_n\sim N(\mu_X, \sigma_X^2)$ and $Y_1,\dotsc,Y_m\sim N(\mu_Y,\sigma^2_Y)$, the $F$ test for equality of variances uses the statistic \begin{align*} F=\frac{s^2_X}{s^2_Y}\overset{d}{=}\frac{\sigma^2_X}{\sigma^2_Y}\frac{\chi^2_{n-1}/(n-1)}{\chi^2_{m-1}/(m-1)}. \end{align*} When the variances are equal, $F\sim F_{n-1,m-1}$.
Wikipedia states that when the variances are not equal, $F$ "has a non-central $F$-distribution". However, according to the standard definition of the non-central $F$-distriubtion, this would mean that $(\sigma_X^2/\sigma_Y^2)\cdot\chi_{n-1}^2\sim \chi^2_{n-1;\delta}$ for some $\delta$.
Is it true that scaling a central $\chi^2$ distribution results in a non-central $\chi^2$ distribution? Or can the term "non-central distribution" refer to any altered central distribution?