Let $x$ be an observation from $X\sim Bin(n,p)$. I want to estimate $p$ and use ML estimator, $\widehat{p}=\frac{x}{n}$. I also want to estimate the variance of the estimator $\widehat{p}$. It equals: $Var(\widehat{p})=Var(\frac{X}{n})=\frac{Var(X)}{n^2}=\frac{p(1-p)}{n}$. As we don't know $p$, it is often replaced by $\widehat{p}$ in the formula. We obtain: $$Var(\widehat{p})=\frac{\widehat{p}(1-\widehat{p})}{n}.$$ In my case, as $x=0$, $\widehat{p}=0$ and thus $Var(\widehat{p})=0$. We thus see that by approximating $p$ with $\widehat{p}$, we obtain a null variance. I will explain now why it's wrongly estimated. The reason why I get $x=0$ is because $p$ is low (but not null) and because the sample size $n$ is low. But when estimating $Var(\widehat{p})$, we approximate $p$ with $\widehat{p}=0$, which gives us a null variance.
How can we correct for that?