considering that $2$ vectors such as $x_2=\begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$ and $y_2=\begin{bmatrix} -1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$ are orthogonal in $2D$ (i.e. their scalar product is $0$) however when we consider a third (in $3D$ ) non-zero component i.e. $x_3=\begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$ and $y_3=\begin{bmatrix} -1 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$, they are not anymore orthogonal in the sense of the scalar product because $=1$ this time and not $0$. However these vectors are indeed "at right angle in $3D$" so to speak. I would have the impression that they are just like in the $z=1$ plane... but maybe i m missing a point here ...? I hope i m not forgetting fundamental things. Please can someone help me clarify this, think about this...
(Also, it's linked to a question w.r.t. principal compenents. Given a $4 \times 4$ matrix $E$ of eigenvalues of a covariance matrix $C$, considering all eigenvectors (columns orthogonal) why can't we just plot the two $2D$ principal compononents as the $2$ columns of the truncated $2\times 2$ upper matrix of $E$? (i tried for fisher iris the $2\times 2$ submatrix of eigenvectors of the covmatrix, the $2 \times 1$ "sub vectors" are not orthogonal))
What about my question about the eigenvalues/Principal components?