I warn that, as I reasoned it, this is a long answer, but maybe someone can come up with something better starting from my attempt (which may not be optimal). Also, I misread the original OPs question and thought it said that the resistances where normally distributed. I'll leave the answer anyways, but that's an underlying supposition.
1. Physical reasoning of the problem
My reasoning is as follows: recall that, for resistors that are in paralel, the equivalent resistance $R_{eq}$ is given by:
$$R_{eq}^{-1}=\sum_{i}^{N}\frac{1}{R_i},$$
where $R_i$ are the resistances of each part of the circuit. In your case, this gives us
$$R_{eq}=\left(\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}+\frac{1}{R_3}\right)^{-1},\ \ \ (*)$$
where $R_1$ is the part of the circuit with 1 resistance, and has therefore a normal distribution with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$, and by the same reasoning $R_2\sim N(2\mu,2\sigma^2)$ is the equivalent resistance of the part of the circuit with two resistances and, finally, $R_3\sim N(3\mu,3\sigma^2)$ is the equivalent resistance of the part of the circuit with three resistances. You ought to find the distribution of $R_{eq}$ and from there obtain the variance of it.
2. Obtaining the distribution of $R_{eq}$
One way to find the distribution is by noting that:
$$p(R_{eq})=\int p(R_{eq},R_1,R_2,R_3)dR_1dR_2dR_3=\int p(R_1|R_{eq},R_2,R_3)p(R_{eq},R_2,R_3)dR_1dR_2dR_3.\ \ \ (1)$$
From here, we also note that we can write
$$p(R_{eq},R_2,R_3)=p(R_2|R_{eq},R_3)p(R_{eq},R_3)=p(R_2|R_{eq},R_3)p(R_{eq}|R_3)p(R_3)$$ (which was obtained via the Bayes Theorem), which, assuming independance between $R_1$, $R_2$ and $R_3$ (which is physically plausible), can be written as $$p(R_{eq},R_2,R_3)=p(R_2|R_{eq})p(R_{eq}|R_3)p(R_3).$$
Replacing this in $(1)$ and noting that another consequence of the independance between the three resistances is that $p(R_1|R_{eq},R_2,R_3)=p(R_1|R_{eq})$, we get:
$$p(R_{eq})=\int p(R_1|R_{eq})p(R_2|R_{eq})p(R_{eq}|R_3)p(R_3)dR_1dR_2dR_3=\int p(R_{eq}|R_3)p(R_3)dR_3.\ \ \ (2)$$
Our last problem then is to find $p(R_{eq}|R_3)$, i.e., the distribution of the r.v. $R_{eq}|R_3$. This problem is analogous to the one we found here, except that now you replace $R_3$ in eq. $(*)$ by a constant, say, $r_3$. Following the same arguments as above, you can find that
$$p(R_{eq}|R_3)=\int p(R_{eq}|R_2,R_3)p(R_2)dR_2.\ \ \ (3)$$
Apparently the rest is replacing the known distributions, except for a little problem: the distribution of $R_{eq}|R_2,R_3$ can be obtained from $(*)$ by noting that $X_1$ is gaussian, so, you essentially need to find the distribution of the random variable
$$W=\left(\frac{1}{X}+a+b\right)^{-1},$$
where $a$ and $b$ are constants, and $X$ is gaussian with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$. If my calculations are correct, this distribution is:
$$p(W)=\frac{1}{[1-W(a+b)]^2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}\text{exp}\left(-\frac{X(W)-\mu}{2\sigma^2}\right),$$
where,
$$X(W)=\frac{1}{W^{-1}-a-b},$$
so $R_{eq}|R_2,R_3$'s distribution would be
$$p(R_{eq}|R_2,R_3)=\frac{1}{[1-R_{eq}(a+b)]^2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}\text{exp}\left(-\frac{X(R_{eq})-\mu}{2\sigma^2}\right),$$
where $a=1/R_2$ and $b=1/R_3$. The thing is that I don't know if this is analytically tractable in order to solve the integral in equation $(3)$, which then will lead us to solve the poblem by replacing it's result in equation $(2)$. At least to me at this time of the night it is not.