1
$\begingroup$

I have a CFA that has estimated one factor to have zero variance. (I fixed one loading to 1 for all factors & left variance free). I don't see how this could be possible, and would appreciate some input.

The overall model has 6 basic factors. The items from each of these factors also load on one of two subgeneral factors, and all items load onto a general factor. (This model is based on bifactor modelling, but is in fact a TRIfactor model). It is not shown in the figure below, but the basic(specific) factors are allowed to correlate:

!http://ux1.eiu.edu/~sjscher/whittington.trifactor.jpg

So, even though the item that load onto the relevant factor each load onto two other factors (the relevant subgeneral factor and the general factor), I still don't know how it is possible that here could be actually ZERO variance for a factor.

Thanks.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The latent variable is doing no work - there is no variance left for it to explain. You can delete the latent variable and the model should be no worse.

In the diagram you show, I would not be surprised if any of the variables on the left hand side (confession, etc) had zero variance.

| cite | improve this answer | |
$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.