Scenario 1: Let $X_i,i\in I$ where $I$ is the index set. For simplicity let $I$ be the finite set $I=\{1,2,\ldots,n\}$. Let each $X_i$ be independent and distributed as $$ X_i\sim N(\delta,1), $$ and let $\mathbf{X}=(X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n)$. Define the index estimator $$ \gamma(\mathbf{X})=\text{argmax}_{i\in I}{\mathbf{(X)}} $$ The distribution of $\gamma(\mathbf{X})$ is uniform. This is easy to see because each $X_i$ is equally likely to be the maximum since they are all independent and identically distributed.
Scenario 2: In this scenario, $X_i$ are still independent, however, not identically distributed. Each $X_i$ has the distribution $$ X_i\sim N(\delta_i,1), $$ and $\gamma(\mathbf X)$ has the same definition, i.e., $$ \gamma(\mathbf{X})=\text{argmax}_{i\in I}{\mathbf{(X)}}. $$ My question is what is the distribution of $\gamma(\mathbf{X})$ in this scenario? I started with \begin{eqnarray} \Pr(\gamma(\mathbf X)=i)&=&\Pr(X_i=\max\{X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n\})\\ &=& \Pr(X_i\geq\max\{X_k:k\neq i,k=1,2,\ldots,n\})\\ \end{eqnarray} And define $Y=\max\{X_k:k\neq i,k=1,2,\ldots,n\}$ which implies $$ \Pr(Y\leq y)=\prod_{k \neq i}\Pr(X_k\leq y)=\prod_{k \neq i}\Phi(y) $$ Then my problem simplifies to $$ \Pr(\gamma(\mathbf X)=i)=\Pr(X_i-Y\geq 0). $$ It is the distribution of $X_i-Y$ that makes life complicated for me. However, if you can proceed in another way it might be easier.