I have a question regarding Bayesian estimation and whether a method such as MCMC is necessary. In the Bayesian setting we have that
$$\pi_{\Theta|X}(\theta|x)\propto f_{X|\Theta}(x|\theta)\,\pi_{\Theta}(\theta)$$
where $\pi_{\Theta}(\theta)$ is the prior density of parameters; $f_{X|\Theta}(x|\theta)$ is the density of the data given the parameters $\Theta=\theta$; and $\pi_{\Theta|X}(\theta|x)$ is the posterior density of interest.
Now, let's assume we know our prior density and are able to calculate the likelihood function of the data given a set of parameters. Further to this, assume we are merely interested in inferring the set of parameters that maximises the posterior density i.e. we want
$$\DeclareMathOperator*{\argmax}{argmax} \argmax_\theta\,\pi_{\Theta|X}(\theta|x)$$
If we follow the following procedure:
- Randomly sample (Monte Carlo style) from the prior density such that we get a set of simulated $\theta$;
- Evaluate the likelihood function at each of these simulated parameter values; and
- Multiply the likelihood and the prior density.
Does taking the mode of this simulated posterior give us the set of parameters that maximise the posterior density? Because we are only interested in the set of parameters that maximise the posterior density, is MCMC unnecessary?
Furthermore, is it reasonable to state that the reason for MCMC is for situations when we would like to evaluate the full posterior density such that we can calculate some other function of the parameters (e.g. $\mathbb{E}[\theta]$) and not just the mode?