Suppose random variables $X_1$, $X_2$, and $X_3$ are independent and normally distributed, and $P(X_1\ge X_2)=p_{12}$ and $P(X_1\ge X_3)=p_{13}$. So what is $P(X_1\ge X_2 \cap X_1\ge X_3)$?
Using multiplication rule for conditional probability, I have
$P(X_1\ge X_2 \cap X_1\ge X_3)=P(X_1\ge X_3)P(X_1\ge X_2 | X_1\ge X_3)=p_{13}P(X_1\ge X_2 | X_1\ge X_3)$.
The question goes to what the probability of $P(X_1\ge X_2 | X_1\ge X_3)$ is. My initial idea is that the event $X_1\ge X_2$ is independent from the event $X_1\ge X_3$, so that $P(X_1\ge X_2 | X_1\ge X_3)=P(X_1\ge X_2)=p_{12}$. Thus, $P(X_1\ge X_2 \cap X_1\ge X_3)=p_{12}p_{13}$.
Similarly,
$P(X_2\ge X_1 \cap X_2\ge X_3)=p_{21}p_{23}$
$P(X_3\ge X_1 \cap X_3\ge X_2)=p_{31}p_{32}$
And, it is obvious that the sum of the three exclusive and exhaustive probabilities should be equal to $1$. But $p_{12}p_{13}+p_{21}p_{23}+p_{31}p_{32}$ is not necessarily $1$ (i.e. $p_{12}=0.5$, $p_{13}=0.7$, and $p_{23}=0.4$, due to the sum's being $1$, $p_{21}=0.5$, $p_{31}=0.3$, and $p_{32}=0.6$, thus $p_{12}p_{13}+p_{21}p_{23}+p_{31}p_{32}=0.5\times 0.7+0.5\times 0.4+0.3\times 0.6=0.73\neq 1$.
It seems the premise that "the event $X_1\ge X_2$ is independent from the event $X_1\ge X_3$" doesn't hold. So how could I get the probability if considering them having dependent relationship?