The R function
binom.test performs an exact binomial test. In trying to understand how many trails would be necessary to reject the null given zero successes, I plotted the p-value as follows
p <- 1/16 n <- seq(2,200) pval <- lapply(n, function(x) binom.test(0,x,p)$p.value) plot(n, pval)
I was surprised to see that the p-value did not decrease monotonically with increasing trials. What is the reason for this and is it accurate?