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I ran a regression using time (continuous), and sex (dummy coded such that males = 0, females = 1) as predictors. The output looks like this:

enter image description here

I understand that for the significant predictor "year," we can, on average, expect a 5.98 unit increase in the response variable for each 1-unit increase in "year." My question is, given the presence of the "sex" variable, is that 5.98 unit increase noted above expected for...both males and females? Only the reference category, which in this case would be females? I should note that the interaction between the two was not significant. Thank you kindly in advance.

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you have 1 dummy column for Gender, so when you have a male you set the param to 0, and female to 1, that means the coefficient relates to the effect of being female only, since

male = 0 * the coeff = 0

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