I ran a regression using time (continuous), and sex (dummy coded such that males = 0, females = 1) as predictors. The output looks like this:
I understand that for the significant predictor "year," we can, on average, expect a 5.98 unit increase in the response variable for each 1-unit increase in "year." My question is, given the presence of the "sex" variable, is that 5.98 unit increase noted above expected for...both males and females? Only the reference category, which in this case would be females? I should note that the interaction between the two was not significant. Thank you kindly in advance.