The question and answer here suggest that the answer is “yes,” but my own analysis in SPSS suggests otherwise:

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Note: I understand that the likelihood ratio chi-square and chi-square test are expected to yield different non-simulated (non-Monte Carlo) p-values simply because they have different statistical bases.

Edit: Also, if degrees of freedom are inapplicable when applying a Monte Carlo simulation, why is SPSS returning them here?



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