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If a country A has a higher Gini index than country B, can you interpret this as that the income distribution in A is lower because of the higher inequality? So we would expect to see wealth being concentrated in a certain group more in A than in country B?

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    $\begingroup$ The Gini index you're talking about (watch out: the same name has been applied to various other measures) is a measure of concentration or inequality. When you say lower, do you mean as plotted as a Lorenz curve with some convention about whether curves are convex up or convex down? That said, there are many other measures of concentration and inequality, so whether countries (e.g.) have higher or lower concentration can depend on how it is measured. $\endgroup$ – Nick Cox May 3 '18 at 19:10
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    $\begingroup$ Welcome to CV holly! You can edit your question (using the "edit" link at lower left of your answer) to improve it along the lines of NickCox's questions. Better questions get more attention. I think questions about interpretation can be very good indeed. $\endgroup$ – Alexis May 3 '18 at 19:27

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