1
$\begingroup$

What I mean to ask is if I have to choose a random number of elements(say 3) without replacement from a set(for example {1,2,3,4,5,6,7}) with a probability distribution generated by running a pseudo random number generator number of times equal to the size of the set and normalized to summation of 1. Is this equivalent to choosing a random number of elements from the same set without replacement? Are their any biases that happen?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The pseudo random generator is mimicking your random choice, you can think of the Pseudo random generator generating a random sequence say (1,4,3...) which is the sequence in which you make the random choice in the latter scenario. Hence they are equivalent.

| cite | improve this answer | |
$\endgroup$
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks. I thought the same but wasn't sure. Will have to wait 9 minutes to accept the answer. $\endgroup$ – Harshit May 3 '18 at 23:37
  • $\begingroup$ Could you please accept the answer if you are satisfied ? Thanks :) $\endgroup$ – sww May 4 '18 at 0:35
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for the delay $\endgroup$ – Harshit May 4 '18 at 11:39

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.