What I mean to ask is if I have to choose a random number of elements(say 3) without replacement from a set(for example {1,2,3,4,5,6,7}) with a probability distribution generated by running a pseudo random number generator number of times equal to the size of the set and normalized to summation of 1. Is this equivalent to choosing a random number of elements from the same set without replacement? Are their any biases that happen?


The pseudo random generator is mimicking your random choice, you can think of the Pseudo random generator generating a random sequence say (1,4,3...) which is the sequence in which you make the random choice in the latter scenario. Hence they are equivalent.

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks. I thought the same but wasn't sure. Will have to wait 9 minutes to accept the answer. $\endgroup$
    – Harshit
    May 3 '18 at 23:37
  • $\begingroup$ Could you please accept the answer if you are satisfied ? Thanks :) $\endgroup$
    – sww
    May 4 '18 at 0:35
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for the delay $\endgroup$
    – Harshit
    May 4 '18 at 11:39

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