When calculating the Variance Inflation Factor for a variable $X_j$ in a multiple regression:

$$VIF_j= \frac{1}{1-R^2_{j}}$$

if the variable in question is a dummy variable with 0/1 values, is it appropriate to use a pseudo-$R^2$ for $X_j$, such as McFadden's pseudo-$R^2$, in place of the standard $R^2$ for continuous variables?


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