I would appreciate help in understanding the following theorem from Knight and Fu (2002) paper:
Consider linear regression model of the form $$Y_i = \beta_0 + x_i'\beta + \varepsilon_i,$$ where $\varepsilon_i \sim i.i.d.(0, \sigma^2)$. We estimate the model using the lasso type estimator $\hat\beta$ $$\hat\beta = \text{arg min}_\phi \sum_{i=1}^{n}(Y_i - x_i'\phi)^2 + \lambda_n\sum_{j=1}^p\vert\phi_j\vert .$$
Further assume that $C_n = n^{-1}\sum_{i=1}^nx_ix_i' \to C$, where $C$ is nonsingular. Let $\lambda_n/n \to \lambda_0 \geq 0$. Then $\hat\beta \xrightarrow{p} \text{arg min}(Z)$ where $$Z(\phi) = (\phi - \beta)'C(\phi - \beta) + \lambda_0\sum_{j=1}^p\vert \phi_j\vert. $$
Thus if $\lambda_n = o(n)$, $argmin(Z) = \beta$ and so $\hat\beta$ is consistent.
Could you explain how does consistency follow from the fact that $\hat\beta \xrightarrow{p} \text{arg min}(Z)$. And also do we talk about consistency in parameter estimation or other types of consistency (e.g. oracle properties)?