Some days ago I asked a question here on CV regarding the invariance principle of MLE. By now I could figure out how this principle works (and that is in fact pretty easy to show). The MLE $\hat\theta$ can be partitioned into, say, 2 partitions, i.e. $\hat\theta = (\hat\theta_1,\hat\theta_2)$ and it seems to be true that one can obtain $\hat\theta$ by these two steps:
- Step 1: $$\hat\theta_1(\theta_2) = \operatorname*{argsup}_{\theta_1}L\Big(\theta_1,\theta_2\Big)$$
- Step 2: $$\hat\theta_2 = \operatorname*{argsup}_{\theta_2}L\Big(\hat\theta_1(\theta_2),\theta_2\Big)$$
Then the MLE is given by $\hat\theta = \Big(\hat\theta_1(\hat\theta_2),\hat\theta_2\Big)$.
This pretty much looks like some invariance property argument and I think I can state it verbally: Step 1 yields the MLE of of the true value of $\theta_1$ because if $\hat\theta$ is the MLE then $\text{proj}_1(\hat\theta) = \hat\theta_1$ is the MLE of $\theta_1$ by the invariance principle. Since $\hat\theta_1(\theta_2)$ is a function of $\theta_2$, the same argument applies. That is, $\hat\theta_1(\hat\theta_2)$ is the MLE of $\hat\theta_1(\theta_2)$. But why does the MLE derived from the above steps coincide with $\hat\theta$? Is this result really a corollary from the invariance principle or is it a different theorem?