3
$\begingroup$

I understand the heuristic definition: say you know a statistic, $T$, of some sample that you want to use to estimate the corresponding population parameter - but you don't know the data points of the sample themselves. 'We say $T$ is a sufficient statistic if the statistician who knows the value of $T$ can do just as good a job of estimating the unknown parameter $\theta$ as the statistician who knows the entire random sample' - that's the definition of a sufficient statistic I've read online, and understand.

But then comes the factorisation theorem, which I'm struggling with: A statistic $T$ is a sufficient one for a sample $\boldsymbol{X} = (X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n)$ if $f(\boldsymbol{X} \mid\theta)$, the conditional pdf for $\boldsymbol{X} $ given the parameter $\theta$ and stat. $T$, does not depend on $\theta$. This is equivalent to factorising $f(\boldsymbol{X} \mid\theta)$ into two functions:

$$f(\boldsymbol{X} \mid\theta) = h(X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n) \cdot g(T(X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n),\theta).$$

$T$ would then be a sufficient statistic, as the conditional probability $f(\boldsymbol{X} \mid\theta)$ now does not depend on $\theta$. But here's my question - how can the new factorised $f(\boldsymbol{X}\mid\theta)$ not depend on $\theta$ when $\theta$ is still in the final equation? In the examples I've seen, the final equations still have $\theta$ in them, as well as the statistic as some function of $X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n$ - so how can the conditional probability depend on $T$ alone?

If $T$ is supposed to be all you need to know to know the conditional distribution, how can $\theta$ be a variable in the equation that you need the data of? I think I've gone wrong in some basic understanding of what's supposed to be going on here, so apologies if this is elementary.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ I have edited your question to put the maths in Latex form and reduce the length a bit. I also note that you were regularly referring to sufficient statistics as 'satisfactory statistics' which is not the correct terminology. I have corrected that also, but please note the correct term. Please check to see that my changes are consistent with the intention of your question. $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Jul 3, 2018 at 6:06

2 Answers 2

5
$\begingroup$

Perhaps a specific example [similar to one in Bain & Englehardt, 2e (1992); Example 10.2.1, p338] will help by showing the required functional independence.

Let data $\mathbf{X} = (x_1, \dots, x_n)$ be a random sample from $\mathsf{Exp}(\lambda),$ an exponential distribution with rate $\lambda;$ and let $t = \sum_i x_i.$ We wish to show that $t$ is sufficient for $\lambda.$

First, the joint density function is

$$f_{\mathbf{X};\lambda}(x_1, \dots, x_n;\lambda) = \lambda^ne^{-\lambda t},\; \text{for}\; x_i > 0.$$

Also, one can show using moment generating functions that $t \sim \mathsf{Gamma}(n, \lambda),$ so that $$f_{t;\lambda}(t;\lambda) = \frac{\lambda^n}{\Gamma(n)}t^{n-1}e^{-\lambda t},\; \text{for}\; t > 0.$$

Thus

$$f_{\mathbf{X}|t}(x_i,\dots,x_n|t) = \frac{f_{\mathbf{X};\lambda}(x_1, \dots, x_n;\lambda)}{f_{t;\lambda}(t;\lambda)} = \frac{\Gamma(n)}{t^{n-1}},$$ which is functionally independent of the parameter $\lambda,$ so that the statistic $t$ is sufficient for $\lambda.$


Note: The simulation below illustrates (for $n=5$ and $\lambda = 3)$ that $\hat \lambda = \frac{n-1}{t}$ is an unbiased estimator of $\lambda$ and that $t \sim \mathsf{Gamma(n, \lambda)}.$

set.seed(1884);  m = 10^6;  n=5;  lam = 3
t = replicate( m, sum(rexp(n, lam)) )
mean((n-1)/t)
[1] 2.999782  # aprx E(4/t) = 3

hist(t, prob=T, col="skyblue2", br=30, main="Simulated Total with GAMMA(5, 3) Density")
  curve(dgamma(x,n,lam), add=T, lwd=2)

enter image description here

$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

You have slightly misunderstood sufficiency and the factorisation theorem here. You can see from the form of the factorisation theorem that the conditional density $f(\boldsymbol{X}|\theta)$ does depend on $\theta$. (You are right - because the value $\theta$ is in the equation, this density does indeed depend on $\theta$.) However, if the factorisation in the factorisation theorem holds, then it can be shown that:

$$f(\boldsymbol{X}|T(\boldsymbol{X}), \theta) = f(\boldsymbol{X}|T(\boldsymbol{X})) = \text{Function depending on }T \text{ but not }\theta,$$

and thus, the conditional density $f(\boldsymbol{X}|T(\boldsymbol{X}), \theta)$ does not depend on $\theta$. That latter property is what is required for sufficiency of $T$. The factorisation theorem just says that if the density $f(\boldsymbol{X}|\theta)$ has a certain form, then the required condition for sufficiency will emerge from this.

Remember that sufficiency means that if you already know the sufficient statistic (i.e., when you conditional on $T$), then the parameter has no further influence on the density of the observed data. If you don't condition on the sufficient statistic then nothing happens - the data is still dependent on the parameter of the underlying distribution.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks very much for your reply! Though, unfortunately it largely still feels over my head. May I ask some follow up questions? Originally, my big hang up was that I was struggling to see intuitively how the factorisation theorem implied the 'heuristic definition' of a suff. stat. I was looking at the fact. theorem, and couldn't see it related to the heuristic definition. But, am I correct in now thinking, from what you're saying, that the fact. theroem isn't the maths version of the heurstic definition - i.e. it doesn't show why, for a given sat. stat, the heurstic def holds ... $\endgroup$ Jul 5, 2018 at 11:29
  • $\begingroup$ it just simply says if this factorisation is possible, then T(x) is indeed a sufficient stat? Is that what you're saying? That would explain why I was struggling to see the intuition behind why the fact. theorem and definition for sufficient stat are linked - becasue that intuition isn't there. Further then, is your maths explanation an explanation as to why a suff stat being a suff stat implies what the definition implies? Suppose it is for a sec, I'm still not quite sure how your explanation implies the definition (though it feels more right)........ $\endgroup$ Jul 5, 2018 at 11:37
  • $\begingroup$ Tell me, from what you've said, if this is then right: If T(X) is a sufficient statistic, then: f(X|θ) = f(X|T(X),θ)=f(X|T(X)) So, if say you had some sample data, for a distribution you know to be binomial but you didn't know the parameter θ, and you calculated f(X|θ) for varying θ - then, if T(X) is sufficient for θ, and you calculated f(X|T(X)) and varied T(X) across the same values for θ, then it would be that: f(X|θ) =f(X|T(X)) . Because f(X|θ) = f(X|T(X),θ)=f(X|T(X)), and that's what it means for T(X) to be sufficient? Is that right? Many thanks for all your help, either way! $\endgroup$ Jul 5, 2018 at 11:44
  • $\begingroup$ I cannot quite make sense of what you are asking. But in the binomial case, a sufficient statistic for $\theta$ is the sample proportion $\bar{x}_n/n$. So, if you already know the sample proportion, then (conditional on this) the distribution of the values no longer depends on the parameter $\theta$. $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Nov 15, 2019 at 10:23

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.