# Closed-form integrals and Bayes' rule? [duplicate]

Can someone explain this to me: "the integral of [the Bayes estimator of] h(θ) does not have a closed form integral under the possibly closed form posterior distribution." It's from here: https://www2.isye.gatech.edu/~brani/isyebayes/bank/handout9.pdf.

More specifically:

1. What is a closed-form integral?

2. How do I know whether the integral of a function has a closed-form integral or not?