I have some questions regarding $k$-fold CV. So far, I understand how $k$-fold CV works as well as what type of results we can obtain at the end of the $k$-fold iterations. However, there is an interesting question that follows when we repeatedly perform $k$-fold CV, especially linked to how the samples are split. To help visualize the problem, let's assume that I'm using a dataset of $M$ distinct samples where $M = kI, I \in \mathbb{N}$. The feature length, or the number of predictors are not important here.
The principle of $k$-fold CV, as I understand it, is to partition the dataset into $k$ (roughly) equal-sized subsets, compose a test set using one of the available $k$ subsets and utilize the remaining $k-1$ subsets as a training set. The predictive model is obtained by training a learning machine using the training set and test this tuned predictive model on the test set in order to obtain some measure of generalization performance.
What is not mentioned, however, is that the $k$ subsets are non-overlapping. Now, assume that I repeatedly perform $k$-fold CV for $N$ runs. If I take the same $k$ subsets everytime, then I expect to obtain exactly the same result for each repeated run. However, since the samples are distinct (i.e. no two samples are equal), it is possible to group them into $k$ different non-overlapping subsets for each run.
To illustrate, let's assume $M = 10$ and $k = 5$ ($5$-fold CV). Consider a binary-valued vector $\mathbf{v}_{test}$ that basically selects the samples to be used as the test set. The most trivial ones would be
$$ \mathbf{v}_{test1} = [1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test2} = [0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test3} = [0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test4} = [0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test5} = [0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1]^{\mathrm{T}} $$
Suppose that we use the trivial way of splitting, as shown above, for run $n=1$. We get a performance figure $F_{1}$. Now we consider the following vectors
$$ \mathbf{v}_{test1} = [0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test2} = [0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test3} = [0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test4} = [0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0]^{\mathrm{T}}\\ \mathbf{v}_{test5} = [1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1]^{\mathrm{T}} $$
Performing the same maneuvers, we obtain $F_{2}$ for the next run, which in theory should be different from $F_{1}$.
Now, for each run, it is clear that no one sample belongs to two or more subsets. But when comparing between runs, we see that the subsets are clearly overlapping (ex. $\mathbf{v}_{test1}$ in run $n=1$ shares one similar sample with $\mathbf{v}_{test5}$ in run $n=2$)
So my questions are:
$\mathbf{Q1}$: Are the two figures $F_{1}$ and $F_{2}$ comparable despite this overlap?
$\mathbf{Q2}$: Can a summary statistics be computed on the ensemble of $F_{n}$'s (in particular, the mean)?
$\mathbf{Q3}$: Would there be a problem with the summary statistics if we authorized an insignificant number of sample overlaps (say less than $10\%$ of the samples are similar in the test sets of runs $n$ and $n+1$)?
Thanks,