The picture above is from Frigola et al (2013) - Bayesian Inference and Learning in Gaussian Process State-Space Models with Particle MCMC.
In this paper, the authors later define $\mathbf{f}_t=f(\mathbf{x}_{t-1})$, and here lies my misunderstanding...
Let me explain better my doubt. When $f(\mathbf{x}_t)$ follows a unidimensional GP, we have for any $n\in \mathbb{N}$
$(f(\mathbf{x}_1),...,f(\mathbf{x}_n))\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu,k(X,X'))$, where $f(\cdot) \in \mathbb{R}$, and $\mu = (m(\mathbf{x}_1),...,m(\mathbf{x}_1))'$.
However, when we write $\mathbf{f}_t=f(\mathbf{x}_{t-1})$, it seems we are using a univariate function to define vector $\mathbf{f}_t$. How can this be? Any help would be appreciated.