Supposing I have a probability distribution $f(x|\vec\theta)$, where $x$ is a random variable and $\vec\theta$ is a vector of distribution parameters. I also know that parameters $\vec\theta$ should satisfy some condition that could be expressed with a function $g(\vec\theta) = 0$.
After $n$ measurements of $x$ with results $x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n$ I can estimate $\vec\theta$ using the maximum likelihood estimation (MLE). To satisfy the constraint $g(\vec\theta) = 0$ I'm using the method of Lagrange multipliers. So the task is to find a maxima of a function $$ F(\vec\theta) = \sum_{i=1}^n{\log f(x_i|\vec\theta)} + \lambda g(\vec\theta), \tag{1} $$ where $\lambda$ is a Lagrange multiplier.
Now I want to estimate the Fisher information matrix for parameters $\vec\theta$, which is $$ I_{ij} = -\mathbb{E}\left[\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\theta_i\partial\theta_j}\log f(x|\vec\theta) \right]. \tag{2} $$ As far as I understand Fisher information describes the sharpness of a likelihood function maxima. But as I perform the maximization with constraint $g(\vec\theta) = 0$ using (1), should I actually estimate the Fisher information matrix as $$ I_{ij} = -\mathbb{E}\left[\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\theta_i\partial\theta_j} F(x,\vec\theta) \right], \quad F(x,\vec\theta) = \log f(x|\vec\theta) + \lambda g(\vec\theta) \tag{3} $$ instead of (2)?