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I stumbled over this probability problem, the solution is explained in the textbook and i am able to follow it, until the point below where i don’t see how they arrive at the next line. I just have no clue.

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The closest I get is this

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    $\begingroup$ Welcome to CV, Petra! If you click "edit" to the lower left of your question, and add the [self-study] tag this question will likely get more attention. $\endgroup$ – Alexis Aug 29 '18 at 20:27
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The remaining step to get what you need is that $$e^{-\lambda}=e^{-\lambda p}\cdot e^{-\lambda q}$$ if $p+q=1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much! I‘ve never seen that „technique“ used, but it is quite nice.... :) $\endgroup$ – Ang Aug 29 '18 at 19:51
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    $\begingroup$ Please be cautious about answering this type of question, @Ivan. Our policy is to try to only give hints so the OP can figure it out for themselves (see here). $\endgroup$ – gung Aug 29 '18 at 20:38

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