If Spearman correlation is Pearson correlation, but on ranks of the data - does it mean that absolute Spearman will always be lower or equal to absolute Pearson correlation, but never greater? Is it possible to have variables that show greater absolute Spearman than absolute Pearson?
Example:
# Spearman == Pearson
# We're correlating ranked variables from the beginning
foo <- 1:1e3
bar <- 1:1e3
sapply(c("pearson", "spearman"), function(x) abs(cor(foo, bar, method = x)))
# Spearman < Pearson
foo <- rnorm(1e3)
bar <- rnorm(1e3)
sapply(c("pearson", "spearman"), function(x) abs(cor(foo, bar, method = x)))