I came across two formulas for the Wald test statistic in a maximum likelihood framework:
One has $(R\hat{\theta}-r)'(RI_n^{-1}R')^{-1}(R\hat{\theta}-r)$, where $I_n^{-1}$ is the inverse of the information matrix.
The other one has $(R\hat{\theta}-r)'(R\frac{\hat{V}}{n}R')^{-1}(R\hat{\theta}-r)$, where V is a consistent estimator of the variance - covariance matgrix
I am confused since the inverse of the information matrix should be equal to the variance covariance matrix? Where does the division by n come from?