Imagine that when we compare treatment A to treatment B (the group A is a high expression and group B is a low expression of gene X) and the pooled hazard ratio (group A in comparison to group B) is 0.56 (95% CI: 0.36 to 0.87). Do I simply say that in group B the risk of cancer is higher? (I.e. instead of saying there is a lower risk of cancer in group A?)
Remember that high expression of gene X is associated with low risk of cancer and low expression of gene X is associated with a higher risk of cancer.
If it's OK, please give me a scientific reference.