What is the best way to approximate $E(h(X))$, where $X$ ~ Lognomal($\mu, \sigma$)?
So far, I can think of Monte Carlo Methods and Gaussian Hermite quadrature as below: \begin{align} E(h(X)) &= \int_{0}^{\infty} h(x) \frac 1 x \cdot \frac 1 {\sigma\sqrt{2\pi\,}} \exp\left( -\frac{(\ln x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} \right) dx \\[8pt] \end{align} using a change of variable $y = ln(x)$: \begin{align} &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} h(e^y) \frac 1 {e^y} \cdot \frac 1 {\sigma\sqrt{2\pi\,}} \exp\left( -\frac{(y -\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} \right) e^y dy \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} h(e^y) \cdot \frac 1 {\sigma\sqrt{2\pi\,}} \exp\left( -\frac{(y -\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} \right)dy \end{align} having $h(e^y) = g(y)$ $$ = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(y) \cdot \frac 1 {\sigma\sqrt{2\pi\,}} \exp\left( -\frac{(y -\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} \right) dy. $$ Using the Gauss-Hermite quadrature from this link in Wikipedia: \begin{align} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g(y) \cdot \frac 1 {\sigma\sqrt{2\pi\,}} \exp\left( -\frac{(y -\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2} \right) dy &\approx \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}} \sum_{i=1}^n w_i g(\sqrt{2} \sigma x_i + \mu) \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}} \sum_{i=1}^n w_i h(e^{(\sqrt{2} \sigma x_i + \mu)}). \end{align} Is what I am doing here fine? Or this would produce approximation errors?
