I have generated 100 sample time series, each 24 items long, and each with an exponential distribution with a different scale for each of the 24 time points. This is the scale parameter per time point:

enter image description here

My 100 time series look like this:

enter image description here

This is the sample covariance matrix:

enter image description here

Now this is the first day:

enter image description here

Now I will artificially create two new days: One where I add a lot to one time point where the variance is generally high (day2 gets an increase at 8 o'clock), and another one where I add the same amount to a time point where the variance is low (day3 gets the same increase at 2am).

I will expect that the distance dist(day1, day2) is a lot smaller than dist(day1, day3), because day2's increase happened in a high-variance region (8am, that is).

enter image description here enter image description here

But the output I get is:

mahalanobis(day1, day2, Sigma)  # should be "small"

mahalanobis(day1, day3, Sigma)  # should be larger

Why is the distance dist(day1, day2) larger than dist(day1, day3)?

Edit: Python code to reproduce the figures and results:

import pandas as pd
import numpy as np
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
import seaborn as sns

one_day_length = 24
n_days = 400

x = np.array(range(one_day_length))
scales = 0.2 + 2 * np.sin(x / 5) ** 2

# plt.plot(scales)

one_random_day = np.random.exponential(scale=scales, size=one_day_length)

# plt.plot(one_random_day)

random_days = pd.DataFrame([np.random.exponential(scale=scales, size=one_day_length) for _ in range(n_days)])

# random_days.head(20).T.plot(legend=False)

Sigma = random_days.cov()

from scipy.spatial.distance import mahalanobis

day1 = random_days.iloc[0]

# plt.plot(day1)
# plt.title('Day 1')

# plt.imshow(Sigma)

mahalanobis(day1, day1, Sigma)  # 0 of course

day2 = day1.copy()
day2[9] += 30
# plt.plot(day2)
# plt.title('Day 2 (8am += 30)')

day3 = day1.copy()
day3[2] += 30
# plt.plot(day3)
# plt.title('Day 3 (2am += 30)')

mahalanobis(day1, day2, Sigma)  # should be "small", but is 64.61
mahalanobis(day1, day3, Sigma)  # should be larger, but is 15.02
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Your intuition is the opposite of how Mahalanobis distance works. See stats.stackexchange.com/questions/62092 for explanations. Note that this generalizes the basic concept of "standardization" or "z scores" from one dimension to many. Specifically, adding a large amount to a variable that has a large variance will scarcely change its z score, while adding the same amount to a variable with small variance will make a large change in its z score. $\endgroup$ – whuber Nov 7 '18 at 14:42
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks! But your explanation is exactly my intuition, as far as I understand. Your last sentence is exactly what I expected here - and what didn't happen. In the "Day 2" plot, I add a large amount (30) to a variable (x=8am) that has large variance (see 2nd and 3rd image). That should scarcely change the z-score, i.e. result in a small distance of mahalanobis(day1, day2), relative to mahalanobis(day1, day3), right? $\endgroup$ – Alexander Engelhardt Nov 7 '18 at 15:19
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Nope--you have it exactly backwards. Adding $30$ to a variable with a variance of, say, $100^2$ adds $0.3$ to its z score. Adding 30 to a variable with a variance of $10^2$ adds $3$ to its z score. The latter is a much greater change. $\endgroup$ – whuber Nov 7 '18 at 15:30
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ I am confused :/ In my opinion you and I are saying the same thing. I understand that adding $30$ to a variable with a variance of $100^2$ is a smaller change than adding $30$ to a variable with variance $10^2$. That's exactly what I did in my plots (right?). Now I'm confused why the distance d(day1, day2) is larger than d(day1, day3), even though I added to the high-variance variable in day2, and I added to the low-variance variable in day3. I expected day3 to be more "extreme" (like you just explained above). $\endgroup$ – Alexander Engelhardt Nov 8 '18 at 7:18
  • $\begingroup$ Could you add a reproducible example, i.e., code generating the data, adding 30, computing the distances? What is the distance between day1 and unmodified day2 vs. the distance between day1 and unmodified day3? $\endgroup$ – Juho Kokkala Nov 8 '18 at 19:43

The strange result is due to a programming error - according to https://docs.scipy.org/doc/scipy-0.14.0/reference/generated/scipy.spatial.distance.mahalanobis.html the mahalanobis-function in question takes inverse covariance matrix as input. Fixing the code as, e.g.,

invSigma = np.linalg.inv(Sigma.values)
mahalanobis(day1, day2, invSigma)  # 14.41
mahalanobis(day1, day3, invSigma)  # 61.93

produces results matching with the expectation.

Indeed, since we are here adding $\Delta=30$ to $j$th element of the vector (day1), keeping the other elements constant, the Mahalanobis distance simplifies as \begin{equation} \sqrt{(\mathbf{x}+\Delta\mathbf{e}_j-\mathbf{x})^T\,V^{-1}\,(\mathbf{x}+\Delta\mathbf{e}_j-\mathbf{x})} = |\Delta|\,\sqrt{(V^{-1})_{j,j}}. \end{equation}

In the setting of the question, the covariance matrix is pretty close to diagonal since it's a sample covariance of data produced from a distribution where the components are independent, and thus $(V^{-1})_{j,j}$ is close to $V_{j,j}^{-1}$. Hence, OP's expectation that modifying a component with high variance should produce a smaller Mahalanobis distance is correct. In presence of correlation, the diagonal element of $(V^{-1})$ measures the residual variance controlling for the other variables (https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/73499/24669). That is to say, the order of the distances could have been different if the high-variance point 8 am was highly correlated with other components.

  • $\begingroup$ Oh god, thank you. Unfortunately I must have stopped reading before the last sentence, because the second-to-last one was "clear enough" for me. $\endgroup$ – Alexander Engelhardt Nov 9 '18 at 22:19

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