this paper I'm reading is on MAOA and violent offenders. From what I understand, an odds ratio of 1.71 means that the violent offenders were almost 2x likely to exhibit the low activity MAOA compared to the controls? Also, because the CI doesn't contain 1, that means their results are statistically significant? Does the P-value represent the probability of the event occurring in the violent offending group?
The low-activity MAOA genotype was associated with violent offending in the crime cohort (odds ratio (OR) 1.71, P = 2.9 × 10 − 5; attributable risk 9%, 95% confidence interval (CI) 4–15%). This finding did not differ between males and females, and childhood maltreatment did not modify the risk (OR 1.62; Supplementary Tables 1a and 1b). The association was even stronger among extremely violent offenders (OR 2.66, P = 1.6 × 10 − 4, attributable fraction 16%, 95% CI 8–24%; Figure 1). In the cohort of homicide offenders (N = 96), the OR was slightly diluted (1.50, 95% CI 0.82– 2.72).