I'm running a LMM analysis for a clinical trial (two treatment conditions, five visits) and I can't understand the exact role of a random intercept.
The baseline score is not included in the outcome (Y) and is instead retained for use as a covariate. A random intercept is also included in the model. My question is: Is this logical? Or does the inclusion of a random intercept at a post-baseline visit 'control out' some possible effect of treatment?
In other words, is it possible to use baseline visit as a covariate in a LMM while also including a random intercept?
Any advice would be much appreciated