Can a Bernoulli distribution be approximated by a Normal distribution? $$\sum_{i=1}^n bernoulli(p) = binomial(n,p) \approx \mathcal N(np, np(1-p)) = \sum_{i=1}^n \mathcal N(p, p(1-p))$$
Can I conclude that $\mathcal N(p, p(1-p))$ could represent an approximation of $bernoulli(p)$?
In particular, given $n$ binary RVs $X_i$ then a possible naive factorization of $P(X_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n)$ is $P(X_1) P(X_2) \ldots P(X_n)$.
Since all the RVs are binary, then they can be modeled as Bernoulli RVs. 
In case I am not interested in the exact probability of the joint, the can I use the normal distribution to approximate each bernoulli variable?  
 A: Let's analyze the error. 
The figure shows plots of the distribution function of various Bernoulli$(p)$ variables in blue and the corresponding Normal distributions in Red.  The shaded regions show where the functions differ appreciably.

(Why plot distribution functions instead of density functions?  Because a Bernoulli variable has no density function.  The densities of good continuous approximations to Bernoulli distributions have huge spikes in neighborhoods of $0$ and $1.$)
No matter what $p$ may be, for some values of $x$ the difference between the two distribution functions will be large.  After all, the Bernoullli distribution function has two leaps in it: it jumps by $1-p$ at $x=0$ and again by $p$ at $x=1.$  The Normal distribution function is going to split the greater of those two leaps into two parts, whence the larger of the two vertical differences--the largest error--must be at least $1/4.$  In fact, it's always greater even than that.
Here is a plot of the maximum difference between the two functions, as it depends on $p:$

It is never smaller than $0.341345,$ attained when $p=1/2.$  Because probabilities all lie between $0$ and $1,$ this is a substantial error.  It is difficult to conceive of circumstances where this approximation would be acceptable, except perhaps when $x\lt 0$ or $x\gt 1:$ but then why use a Normal distribution at all?  Just approximate those values as $0$ and $1,$ respectively, without any error at all.
A: I don't think you can conclude that N(p,p(1−p)) could represent an approximation of bernoulli(p). First of all, for a bernoulli variable, a random sample could only be 0 or 1, on the other hand, the range of normal variable could be from -inf to inf.  Secondly, If we have a random distribution with mean p, and variance p(1-p), once we draw lots of samples from this distribution and add them together, their summation distribution will also follow a normal distribution with mean np and variance np(1-p) due to central limit theorem. For sure we can't say the random distribution represents an approximation of bernoulli(p)... 
