Here is an example on which my question is based can please someone tell me what is the relation between the probability close to one and the fact that we have same decisions as classical tests and most importantly is this caused by the loss of pivotality? Thank you very much.

  • $\begingroup$ Could you tell us what "ERP" stands for? $\endgroup$ – whuber Dec 23 '18 at 14:41

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.