Let $\overline X$ be the mean of a Bernoulli random variable (r.v.)
$$\overline X = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i$$
where $X_i \in \{0, 1\}$. So based on Central Limit Theoreom,
$$\overline X \sim \mathcal{N}\Big(p, \frac{p(1-p)}{n}\Big)$$
Obviously, $0 < \overline X < 1$ (let's ignore the boundary 0 and 1 edgecase for now).
I am interested in knowing if another r.v. $\log \overline X$ is asymptotically normal.
At first, I thought for $\log \overline X$ to be normal, then $\overline X$ should be log-normal, which isn't the case as described above.
However, I did some computer simulation, it seems to be the case that $\log \overline X$ is still normal, how to show it formally, please?