The picture below shows the problem. I have tried to solve in this way: 0,001*1,88+2400*0,002 by following a formula in theory slides. But obviously there is a problem in that. Could someone help me ? thank you


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    $\begingroup$ Note that the var tag refers to vector autoregression rather than value at risk. $\endgroup$ – Richard Hardy Jan 3 '19 at 15:53
  • $\begingroup$ Did you just randomly plugged numbers to a random formula? $\endgroup$ – Aksakal Jan 3 '19 at 16:29
  • $\begingroup$ No, the formula I had was: ∅^-1 * (1- α)* σ + μW0 $\endgroup$ – White Noise Jan 3 '19 at 17:06
  • $\begingroup$ Anyway, I think to be arrived at the solution by myself. If you want to know, the right formula should be this one (for 97% of confidence interval): W0* (1,88* σ - μ). $\endgroup$ – White Noise Jan 3 '19 at 17:55

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