0
$\begingroup$

I'm completely stuck on how to get this answer from a course below.

enter image description here

I guessed the answer, but I'm lost on how they get to it. I did the following in R

N_0 = 1
n = 1000
z = 2.055
BF = (((n+N_0)/n)^0.5)* exp((-1/2)*(n/(n+N_0)*z^2))
BF
[1] 0.121371

Given the Bayes Factor is 3.83, I know I've screwed up somewhere (and got the right answer by accident.

Can anyone help spot my error?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The mistake is in the way you are calculating the BF. The BF should be BF = (((n+N_0)/N_0)^0.5)* exp((-1/2)*(n/(n+N_0)z^2)) based on the formula provided in the text. You have used, BF = (((n+N_0)/n)^0.5) exp((-1/2)*(n/(n+N_0)*z^2))

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ Wow...I can't believe it was something that darn simple. Thank you! $\endgroup$ – RichardMillington Jan 11 at 13:47

Your Answer

By clicking "Post Your Answer", you acknowledge that you have read our updated terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy, and that your continued use of the website is subject to these policies.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.