Suppose $X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n$ is a random sample drawn from the distribution
$$f_{\theta}(x)=e^{-(x-\theta)}\mathbf1_{x>\theta}$$
It can be shown that there exist some $c_{\alpha}, d_{\alpha}$ such that
$$P_{\theta}(X_{(1)}+c_{\alpha}<\theta<X_{(1)})=1-\alpha\quad\forall\,\theta\tag{1}$$
and $$P_{\theta}(\overline X+d_{\alpha}<\theta<\overline X)=1-\alpha\quad\forall\,\theta\tag{2}$$
I am asked to justify, "without any formal derivation", which statement among $(1)$ and $(2)$ leads to UMAU confidence interval for $\theta$ with confidence coefficient $1-\alpha$.
I know that a Uniformly Most Accurate Unbiased (UMAU) region for $\theta$ can be obtained from a Uniformly Most Powerful Unbiased (UMPU) test if I consider the problem of testing $H:\theta=\theta_0$ against some $K:\theta\ne \theta_0$.
But how can I justify which of the two tests, one based on $X_{(1)}$ and another based on $\overline X$, is UMPU for testing $H$ without actually deriving the tests?
The CI obtained from $(1)$ has the shortest length based on the pivot $X_{(1)}-\theta$, but is it UMAU (or equivalently, is the test based on $X_{(1)}$ UMPU)?
I have this following definition of UMAU confidence set at hand which is somewhat difficult to work with directly:
$S_0(\mathbf X)$ for varying $\mathbf X\in \mathscr{X}$ is said to be a family of UMAU confidence sets of $\theta$ with confidence coefficient $1-\alpha$ if
(i) $P_{\theta}(\theta\in S_0(\mathbf X))=1-\alpha\quad\forall\,\theta\in\Theta$
(ii) $P_{\theta'}(\theta\in S_0(\mathbf X))\le 1-\alpha\quad\forall\,\theta,\,\theta'(\ne \theta)$
(iii) $P_{\theta'}(\theta\in S_0(\mathbf X))\le P_{\theta'}(\theta\in S(\mathbf X))\quad\forall\,\theta,\,\theta'(\ne \theta)$, for whatever $S$ satisfying (i) and (ii).
Any hint would be great rather than a full answer.