I have that question from a past exam (without answer):
There are two urns, say I and II. Urn I contains 1 white ball and 1 black ball. Urn II containts two white balls and 3 black balls, and suppose that the balls are indistinguishable except for the colour. A ball is drawn randomly from urn I and put into urn II. Then a ball is drawn from urn II. Determine: (...) b) The probability of the 1st drawn ball being white, given that the 2nd ball was a white ball.
My answer:
$P(W_{1}|W_{2}) = \dfrac{P(W_{2}|W_{1})P(W_{1})}{P(W_{2})} = \dfrac{\Big(\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{1}{2}\Big).\Big(\dfrac{1}{2}\Big)}{P(W_{2})} = \dfrac{\dfrac{1}{8}}{P(W_{2})}$
And here is my doubt: Should I consider $P(W_2) = 1$, as the condition is "white ball in the second draw" and get $P(W_{1}|W_{2}) = \dfrac{1}{8}$, or should I consider that $\text{urn }II'$ = $\begin{cases} 3W, 3B,\text{ if $W_{1}$}\\ 2W, 4B, \text{ if $B_{1}$} \end{cases}$, and then the probability of $W_{2}$ is $\dfrac{1}{2} + \dfrac{1}{3} = \dfrac{5}{6}$?