From this article, I read that the author drew four versions of CDFs each plotted in different distributions (all four plots come from the same sample data)
From these four plots, the author chooses specifically the Weibull distribution because the sample data is best represented in Weibull distribution. And he draws the following conclusion:
"A similar assessment can be made with a probability plot, which shows this is a predictable process and that 91 percent of the ER waiting times are within four hours."
Why did he specifically choose Weibull distribution to draw that conclusion? Couldn't you just use the CDF plotted in lognormal, exponential, or normal scale to draw the same conclusion?
My understanding of interpreting CDF says that reading percentiles should not be affected by different distribution scales.