I would be grateful for any help. I am using a Mann Whitney test to determine whether there are differences between two groups (adopters and non-adopters) on 15 explanatory variables that are scaled along a Likert scale (1=strongly disagree to 6=strongly agree).
I performed a Mann-Whitney for each of the 15 explanatory variables.
I am very confused about how to write-up the interpretation. For example, here is the output from one of the Mann-Whitney test:
ranksum Challreclackskills, by(Anyreg) Two-sample Wilcoxon rank-sum (Mann-Whitney) test Anyreg~l obs rank sum expected No 67 5417.5 4891 Yes 78 5167.5 5694 combined 145 10585 10585 unadjusted variance 63583.00 adjustment for ties -2640.28 adjusted variance 60942.72 Ho: Challr~s(Anyreg~l==No) = Challr~s(Anyreg~l==Yes) z = 2.133 Prob > z = 0.0329
Firstly, what does the rank sum tell me? Is it something I would report as part of the interpretation? If so, how would I interpret this?
Using this output, it looks like there is no significant difference between adopters and non-adopters on perceptions about challenges related to lack of skills. However, when I run the summary statistics on these two variables, I see that the median value for Challreclackskills among adopters is 3.5 for the while the median for non-adopters is 4. So, would the correct interpretation be that while a higher proportion of non-adopters are more likely to agree that there are challenges, the differences between these groups are significant?