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In the notation for the conditional probability, $p(y|x)$, I believe usually we think of this with $x$ having a fixed value and $y$ varying, such that it integrates to one.

In this case, is it acceptable to instead write it, or think of it, as $p_x(y)$?

I.e. $$ p_x(y) \equiv p(y|x) $$

Somehow I would find this to be more clear than the traditional conditional notation.

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2 Answers 2

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This is not the best choice for notation. Such notation is commonly used in two scenarios.

First, you can see people writing $p_X(x)$, where they mean "value returned by probability distribution $p$ of random variable $X$ for $x$". In this case $p(x)$ is a less precise shorthand for $p_X(x)$. So if $X$ is random variable for heights of males and $Y$ is heights of females, then $p_X(y)$ means "what would be the probability of observing female's height $y$ according to the distribution of male heights $p_X$". Using this notation, people write $p_{X|Y}(x)$ to denote $p(X=x|Y)$. You can find many uses of this notation in Wikipedia's article on conditional probability distributions.

Second common usage, is writing $f_\theta(x)$ for "probability density (or probability) returned by probability density (or mass) function $f$ parametrized by $\theta$ for $x$". In this case again $\theta$ is a property of $f$. So $f_\theta(x)$ is a different spelling of $f(x; \theta)$.

Moreover, you write

In the notation for the conditional probability, $p(y|x)$, I believe usually we think of this with $x$ having a fixed value and $y$ varying [...]

but notice that $P(X=x|Y=y)$ and $P(X=x|Y)$ are not the same, since in first case you ask about conditioning on fixed value of $Y$, while in the second case you ask about conditioning on random variable.

- There is nothing special about letter $f$, you can use any other letter in here, $f$ and $p$ are the two most popular choices.

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You can use if you’re consistent in your notation (but I don't really suggest). Although widely used, $p(x), p(y), p(x|y),...$ are all abuse of notations. They’re ambigious, e.g. what is $p(2)$? $p$ doesn’t represent the pdf of a specific RV.

A better and fully unambigious way is to use $p_X(x)$, where subscript denotes the RV, and inside parantheses the specific value. This way we know which pdf we use.

Your new notation actually may cause people to think “put $y$ in the pdf of $x$”. If you’ll only read your notes, it’s OK upto some extent.

A bad case when you don’t use subscripts is the convolution of densities by the way: $$\int f_X(x)f_Y(z-x)dx \ \ \text{vs} \ \ \int f(x)f(z-x)dx$$

In the RHS expression, it's totally ambiguous what $f(.)$ represents.

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