I'm having a hard time reconciling two seemingly contradictory findings:
In a binomial logistic regression (where 0 is abstinent and 1 is relapsed), the 7 category nominal predictor showed significant differences between classes
In a zero-inflated negative binomial model looking at a count dependent variable (representing # of days using drugs or alcohol), the zero-inflation model, which predicts "always 0" (so a corollary for abstinence), the 7 category nominal predictor showed NO significant differences between classes.
Both models controlled for the same covariates, and I'm just struggling with justifying the differences in text. Is it because the zero-inflated negative binomial looks at variables that predict abstinence and the binomial logistic regression looks at variables that predict differences between abstinent and relapsed? Or should they be the same and this suggest something is wrong with one of the models?