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I was wondering if "standard deviation" of a "likelihood function" could ever represent the "Standard error" of a "sampling distribution"?

I ask this, because when one follows a Bayesian approach with a flat prior, for simple univariate cases, the percentile-based interval derived from the likelihood function is nearly the same as the confidence interval derived from a sampling distribution.

This raises the question, if "standard deviation" of a "likelihood function" could ever represent the "Standard error" of a "sampling distribution"?

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