In looking over TooTone's answer in Derive Variance of regression coefficient in simple linear regression, there's a step in line 3 below where $(\beta_0 + \beta_1x_i + u_i )$ is simplified to $u_i$ on the basis that only $u_i$ is a random variable. I'm having trouble understanding why the $\beta_0 + \beta_1x_i$ terms can be ignored as a result of this? Is anyone able to offer more detail on either a reason or an intermediate step that I'm not following?
\begin{align} \text{Var}(\hat{\beta_1}) & = \text{Var} \left(\frac{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})(y_i - \bar{y})}{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2} \right) \\ &= \text{Var} \left(\frac{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})(\beta_0 + \beta_1x_i + u_i )}{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2} \right), \;\;\;\text{substituting in the above} \\ &= \text{Var} \left(\frac{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})u_i}{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2} \right), \;\;\;\text{noting only $u_i$ is a random variable} \\ &= \frac{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2\text{Var}(u_i)}{\left(\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2\right)^2} , \;\;\;\text{independence of } u_i \text{ and, Var}(kX)=k^2\text{Var}(X) \\ &= \frac{\sigma^2}{\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2} \\ \end{align}