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What is the effect of scaling up distributions on the test of means difference among them?

For instance, does doubling the baseline distribution values across 4 distributions change the results of test of means difference between them? Is there a definite mathematical answer to that question, or is the answer dependent on say the type of distributions (normal, Poisson, etc.), the number of distributions, value of factor applied, the type of test, and so on?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Michael Chernick, user158565, Siong Thye Goh, mdewey, Jeremy Miles Jun 13 at 21:41

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