# model test p-value>0.05 but intrcpt <0.05 [closed]

Mixed-Effects Model (k = 21; tau^2 estimator: SJ)

tau^2 (estimated amount of residual heterogeneity): 0.2301 (SE = 0.0752)
tau (square root of estimated tau^2 value): 0.4797
I^2 (residual heterogeneity / unaccounted variability): 93.30%
H^2 (unaccounted variability / sampling variability): 14.92
R^2 (amount of heterogeneity accounted for): 0.00%

Test for Residual Heterogeneity:
QE(df = 19) = 494.7195, p-val < .0001

Test of Moderators (coefficient 2):
F(df1 = 1, df2 = 19) = 0.4029, p-val = 0.5331

Model Results:

estimate      se     tval    pval    ci.lb   ci.ub
intrcpt                 0.7497  0.1143   6.5572  <.0001   0.5104  0.9889  ***
fidelity_assessmentY   -0.3183  0.5014  -0.6348  0.5331  -1.3676  0.7311

---
Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1


Dear group,

Thank you for your replies regarding my previous post. I have one more question regarding the meta-regression results. I divided studies into "with fidelity assessment (Y)" and "without fidelity assessment (N)". The test of moderators shows that p-value is 0.5331. However p-value for the intrcpt is <.0001. Based on the previous post, I understand that this means that the group without fidelity assessment is significant. My question is that since the moderator test says that p-value is 0.5331, can I still draw the conclusion that the intercpt group is significant?

## closed as unclear what you're asking by Michael Chernick, kjetil b halvorsen, Peter Flom♦Jul 26 at 12:33

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• Based on the previous post, I understand that this means that the group without fidelity assessment is significant. Please clarify. – Subhash C. Davar Jul 21 at 12:35

In this case, the table is telling you that the estimate for the reference level "without fidelity assessment (N)" is significantly different from zero (p value <.0001). And the estimate of the other level "with fidelity assessment (Y)" is not significantly different from the reference level estimate (N) (p value 0.5331).