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Is it valid to z normalise data before doing Pearson's or spearman's correlation on curves? Currently I am z normalising my data and then running a spearman's correlation, from there I can generate p values.

What I'm looking is signals from a set of signals that have a statistically significant difference, and the above is the method I have used.

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    $\begingroup$ Did you try it to see how the standardization affects the correlations? $\endgroup$
    – ttnphns
    Jul 13, 2019 at 11:31

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Standardisation, i.e. subtraction of the mean and division by the standard deviation, is a linear transformation of your data. Neither Pearson's nor Spearman's correlation coefficient depend on the absolute values, hence neither will be affected by standardisation.

As ttnphns commented: try and see that there is no difference.

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